EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: The organization's security manager wishes to back up just the Gaia operating system parameters. Which command can be used to back up only Gaia operating system parameters like interface details, Static routes and Proxy ARP entries?

Question2: Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

Question3: On the following graphic, you will find layers of policies.

What is a precedence of traffic inspection for the defined polices?

Question4: Fill in the blank: Once a license is activated, a ________ should be installed.

Question5: Which application should you use to install a contract file?

Question6: To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Question7: Fill in the blank: Licenses can be added to the License and Contract repository ________ .

Question8: Kofi, the administrator of the ABC Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port number currently set on the default HTTPS port. Which CLISH commands are required to be able to change this TCP port?

Question9: Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Question10: Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

Question11: Fill in the blank: A _______ is used by a VPN gateway to send traffic as if it were a physical interface.

Question12: Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

Question13: Katie has been asked to do a backup on the Blue Security Gateway. Which command would accomplish this in the Gaia CLI?

Question14: What is the potential downside or drawback to choosing the Standalone deployment option instead of the Distributed deployment option?

Question15: Which command shows the installed licenses?

Question16: View the rule below. What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean? Select the BEST answer.

Question17: Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Question18: What are the two types of address translation rules?

Question19: When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:

Question20: R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Question21: What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?

Question22: Sally has a Hot Fix Accumulator (HFA) she wants to install on her Security Gateway which operates with GAiA, but she cannot SCP the HFA to the system. She can SSH into the Security Gateway, but she has never been able to SCP files to it. What would be the most likely reason she cannot do so?

Question23: In the R80 SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

Question24: SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

Question25: What is the SOLR database for?

Question26: What action can be performed from SmartUpdate R77?

Question27: Which of the following is NOT a set of Regulatory Requirements related to Information Security?

Question28: Fill in the blank: The _________ software blade enables Application Security policies to allow, block, or limit website access based on user, group, and machine identities.

Question29: Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

Question30: Fill in the blank: The R80 utility fw monitoris used to troubleshoot _____________

Question31: What does it mean if Bob gets this result on an object search? Refer to the image below. Choose the BEST answer.

Question32: Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Question33: You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
1. Run cpconfig on the Gateway, select Secure Internal Communication, enter the activation key, and reconfirm.
2. Initialize Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) on the Security Management Server.
3. Configure the Gateway object with the host name and IP addresses for the remote site.
4. Click the Communication button in the Gateway object's General screen, enter the activation key, and click Initialize and OK.
5. Install the Security Policy.

Question34: Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links. Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

Question35: What does ExternalZone represent in the presented rule?

Question36: Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Question37: What are the three tabs available in SmartView Tracker?

Question38: What is the appropriate default Gaia Portal address?

Question39: What SmartEvent component creates events?

Question40: In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

Question41: What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Question42: What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R80.10 code?

Question43: What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?

Question44: Which rule is responsible for the user authentication failure?

Question45: In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Question46: To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members?
Choose the best answer.

Question47: Which utility shows the security gateway general system information statistics like operating system information and resource usage, and individual software blade statistics of VPN, Identity Awareness and DLP?

Question48: Choose what BEST describes the Policy Layer Traffic Inspection.

Question49: Can a Check Point gateway translate both source IP address and destination IP address in a given packet?

Question50: Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?

Question51: At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Question52: What is the difference between an event and a log?

Question53: Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

Question54: Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Question55: When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

Question56: MyCorp has the following NAT rules. You need to disable the NAT function when Alpha-internal networks try to reach the Google DNS (8.8.8.8) server.
What can you do in this case?

Question57: During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Question58: What statement is true regarding Visitor Mode?

Question59: Mesh and Star are two types of VPN topologies. Which statement below is TRUE about these types of communities?

Question60: Which limitation of CoreXL is overcome by using (mitigated by) Multi-Queue?

Question61: The most important part of a site-to-site VPN deployment is the ________ .

Question62: Packages and licenses are loaded from all of these sources EXCEPT

Question63: Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Question64: Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Question65: Fill in the blank: The command __________ provides the most complete restoration of a R80 configuration.

Question66: Office mode means that:

Question67: There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have higher priority than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A's interface issues were resolved and it became operational. When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?

Question68: Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Question69: The fw monitorutility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?

Question70: Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Question71: Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

Question72: Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Question73: NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?

Question74: You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Question75: What does the "unknown" SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?

Question76: When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Question77: Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

Question78: Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

Question79: There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R80 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

Question80: You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the right protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor. Which Check Point products protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?

Question81: You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.

In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a working connection, you receive this error message:

What is the reason for this behavior?

Question82: Which type of the Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Question83: Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Question84: Where do we need to reset the SIC on a gateway object?

Question85: Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

Question86: What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Question87: Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?

Question88: Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______ .

Question89: Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?

Question90: On R80.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Question91: Fill in the blank: A(n) _____ rule is created by an administrator and is located before the first and before last rules in the Rule Base.

Question92: Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components:

Question93: In R80, Unified Policy is a combination of

Question94: AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole. What does it mean if AdminB sees a locked icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

Question95: Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen.


After being authenticated by the Security Gateways, a user starts a HTTP connection to a Web site. What happens when the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line? The:

Question96: What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Question97: Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

Question98: Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?

Question99: Which of the following are types of VPN communicates?

Question100: When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error 'no proposal chosen' is seen numerous times.
No other VPN-related log entries are present. Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

Question101: Which of the following is NOT a back up method?

Question102: Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ________ layer(s) of the TCP/ IP model and up to and including the ________ layer.

Question103: Fill in the blank: Each cluster has __________ interfaces.

Question104: Please choose correct command syntax to add an "emailserver1" host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

Question105: Your manager requires you to setup a VPN to a new business partner site. The administrator from the partner site gives you his VPN settings and you notice that he setup AES 128 for IKE phase 1 and AES
256 for IKE phase 2. Why is this a problematic setup?

Question106: If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

Question107: What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Question108: Look at the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.

Question109: Using R80 Smart Console, what does a "pencil icon" in a rule mean?

Question110: You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Question111: SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Question112: Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspect installed a WinSCP client in order to use encrypted communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?

Question113: John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, gateway policy permits access only from Join's desktop which is assigned an IP address 10.0.0.19 via DHCP.
John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but the limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop. He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:
1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources.
2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.
John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and he is not able to connect.
How does he solve this problem?

Question114: You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Question115: Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

Question116: When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Question117: What CLI utility allows an administrator to capture traffic along the firewall inspection chain?

Question118: In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

Question119: Which tool CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate R77?

Question120: Message digests use which of the following?

Question121: Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80?

Question122: Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a _______ and _______ .

Question123: Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company's production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment. Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

Question124: Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?

Question125: Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Question126: What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

Question127: What command would show the API server status?

Question128: Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

Question129: What happens if the identity of a user is known?

Question130: You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don't have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Question131: Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

Question132: Fill in the blank: When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as
_______

Question133: You are going to upgrade from R77 to R80. Before the upgrade, you want to back up the system so that, if there are any problems, you can easily restore to the old version with all configuration and management files intact. What is the BEST backup method in this scenario?

Question134: Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

Question135: Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

Question136: The Captive Portal tool:

Question137: The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Question138: The following graphic shows:

Question139: What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Question140: You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Question141: Administrator wishes to update IPS from SmartConsole by clicking on the option "update now" under the IPS tab. Which device requires internet access for the update to work?

Question142: Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Question143: Joey is using the computer with IP address 192.168.20.13. He wants to access web page "www.Check Point.com", which is hosted on Web server with IP address 203.0.113.111. How many rules on Check Point Firewall are required for this connection?

Question144: What are the three conflict resolution rules in the Threat Prevention Policy Layers?

Question145: The security Gateway is installed on GAiA R80 The default port for the WEB User Interface is _______ .

Question146: What is true about the IPS-Blade?

Question147: What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Question148: What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

Question149: What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Question150: From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Question151: Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Question152: To install a brand new Check Point Cluster, the MegaCorp IT department bought 1 Smart-1 and 2 Security Gateway Appliances to run a cluster. Which type of cluster is it?

Question153: What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Question154: Fill in the blanks: A security Policy is created in _________ , stored in the _________ , and Distributed to the various __________ .

Question155: Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by _____ ?

Question156: While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain. Why does it not detect the windows domain?

Question157: Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?

Question158: Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

Question159: In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? Select the BEST answer.

Question160: How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

Question161: Jack works for a managed service provider and he has been tasked to create 17 new policies for several new customers. He does not have much time. What is the BEST way to do this with R80 security management?

Question162: What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

Question163: Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Question164: Web Control Layer has been set up using the settings in the following dialogue:

Consider the following policy and select the BEST answer.

Question165: Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

Question166: Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Question167: Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?

Question168: Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ________ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ________ all traffic.

Question169: Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Question170: What are the two high availability modes?

Question171: When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?

Question172: Provide very wide coverage for all products and protocols, with noticeable performance impact.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level?
Select the BEST answer.

Question173: What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

Question174: Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packer acceleration?

Question175: You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities sh you do first?

Question176: When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

Question177: Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

Question178: After the initial installation the First Time Configuration Wizard should be run. Select the BEST answer.

Question179: What component of R80 Management is used for indexing?

Question180: Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

Question181: Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?

Question182: The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Question183: Which authentication scheme requires a user to possess a token?

Question184: R80 Security Management Server can be installed on which of the following operating systems?

Question185: In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?

Question186: Choose the SmartLog property that is TRUE.

Question187: Choose what BEST describes a Session.

Question188: Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?

Question189: Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)

Question190: You want to define a selected administrator's permission to edit a layer. However, when you click the + sign in the "Select additional profile that will be able edit this layer" you do not see anything. What is the most likely cause of this problem? Select the BEST answer.

Question191: Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Question192: The Gaia operating system supports which routing protocols?

Question193: If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Question194: You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Question195: In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server (Security Management Server)?

Question196: The WebUI offers three methods for downloading Hotfixes via CPUSE. One of them is Automatic method.
How many times per day will CPUSE agent check for hotfixes and automatically download them?

Question197: What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Question198: Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

Question199: Fill in the blank: The R80 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

Question200: Which information is included in the "Full Log" tracking option, but is not included in the "Log" tracking option?

Question201: The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Question202: If the first packet of an UDP session is rejected by a security policy, what does the firewall send to the client?

Question203: Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Question204: Which Check Point software blade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Question205: Which default user has full read/write access?

Question206: The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

Question207: Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?

Question208: Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

Question209: On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking "Next" the above configuration is supported by:

Question210: How many users can have read/write access in Gaia at one time?

Question211: Why would an administrator see the message below?

Question212: In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Question213: Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?

Question214: Tina is a new administrator who is currently reviewing the new Check Point R80 Management console interface. In the Gateways view, she is reviewing the Summary screen as in the screenshot below. What as an 'Open Server'?

Question215: Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API's?

Question216: You are unable to login to SmartDashboard. You log into the management server and run #cpwd_admin list with the following output:

What reason could possibly BEST explain why you are unable to connect to SmartDashboard?

Question217: When a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom, and enforces the first rule that matches a packet. Which of the following statements about the order of rule enforcement is true?

Question218: Which the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Question219: Customer's R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Question220: The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic.
The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Question221: Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

Question222: You are the administrator for ABC Corp. You have logged into your R80 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

What does this mean?

Question223: Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Question224: Fill in the blank: The _________ collects logs and sends them to the _________ .

Question225: You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. In order to see how efficient your firewall Rule Base is, you would like to see how many often the particular rules match. Where can you see it? Give the BEST answer.

Question226: In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Question227: Which directory holds the SmartLog index files by default?

Question228: How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Question229: Which remote Access Solution is clientless?

Question230: SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Question231: Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using
________ .

Question232: Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

Question233: The IT Management team is interested in the new features of the Check Point R80 Management and wants to upgrade but they are concerned that the existing R77.30 Gaia Gateways cannot be managed by R80 because it is so different. As the administrator responsible for the Firewalls, how can you answer or confirm these concerns?

Question234: Fill in the blank: RADIUS Accounting gets ______ data from requests generated by the accounting client

Question235: Fill in the blank: The ________ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

Question236: Fill in the blank: RADIUS protocol uses ______ to communicate with the gateway.

Question237: Your bank's distributed R77 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?

Question238: Fill in the blanks: A High Availability deployment is referred to as a ______ cluster and a Load Sharing deployment is referred to as a ________ cluster.

Question239: John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Question240: What is the default method for destination NAT?

Question241: Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

Question242: Fill in the blank: The R80 feature ________ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Question243: Fill in the blank: To build an effective Security Policy, use a ________ and _______ rule.

Question244: Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

Question245: Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Question246: Joey wants to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

Question247: Which of the following is a hash algorithm?

Question248: Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?

Question249: What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Question250: What port is used for delivering logs from the gateway to the management server?